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![Quantum Mechanics] In this solved problem for the Variational Method, in the normalization condition, why is the lower limit of the integral equals zero instead of negative infinity? : r/PhysicsStudents](https://preview.redd.it/gccwwyvfl4j61.jpg?width=640&crop=smart&auto=webp&s=e7ef22bded50e27bbb77e7244811406ab09c1df6 "Quantum Mechanics] In this solved problem for the Variational Method, in the normalization condition, why is the lower limit of the integral equals zero instead of negative infinity? : r/PhysicsStudents")
Quantum Mechanics] In this solved problem for the Variational Method, in the normalization condition, why is the lower limit of the integral equals zero instead of negative infinity? : r/PhysicsStudents
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